JEPBN Mock Test

Part A: General Subjects

1. Which part of the brain is responsible for controlling voluntary movements?

a) Cerebellum b) Medulla oblongata c) Cerebrum d) Hypothalamus

2. Which of the following is the largest artery in the human body?

a) Pulmonary artery b) Aorta c) Femoral artery d) Carotid artery

3. Which gland is known as the 'master gland' of the endocrine system?

a) Adrenal gland b) Thyroid gland c) Pituitary gland d) Pancreas

4. What is the primary function of red blood cells (erythrocytes)?

a) Fighting infections b) Blood clotting c) Transporting oxygen d) Maintaining fluid balance

5. Which of the following is not a bone of the human skull?

a) Mandible b) Clavicle c) Occipital bone d) Zygomatic bone

6. In which part of the digestive system does the absorption of nutrients primarily occur?

a) Stomach b) Large intestine c) Esophagus d) Small intestine

7. What is the main role of the liver in the human body?

a) Pumping blood b) Filtering waste from blood and producing urine c) Storing bile and releasing it to aid digestion d) Metabolizing carbohydrates, fats, and proteins

8. Which muscle type is responsible for the rhythmic beating of the heart?

a) Smooth muscle b) Skeletal muscle c) Voluntary muscle d) Cardiac muscle

9. Which of the following is a symptom of a urinary tract infection (UTI)?

a) Increased appetite b) Pain or burning during urination c) Swelling in the feet d) Dry cough

10. Which part of the cell is known as the 'powerhouse'?

a) Nucleus b) Cytoplasm c) Mitochondria d) Ribosomes

11. What is the primary function of the kidneys?

a) Digesting food b) Filtering waste from the blood c) Producing insulin d) Pumping blood to the lungs

12. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?

a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B complex c) Vitamin A d) Folic acid

13. What is the term for the process of a microorganism causing disease?

a) Fermentation b) Pathogenesis c) Osmosis d) Photosynthesis

14. Which of the following is an example of a Gram-positive bacterium?

a) Escherichia coli b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Salmonella typhi

15. What is the primary purpose of sterilization in a medical setting?

a) To reduce the number of microorganisms b) To remove dirt and debris from surfaces c) To eliminate all forms of microbial life d) To prevent the growth of fungi

16. What is the main difference between bacteria and viruses?

a) Viruses can reproduce on their own, while bacteria cannot. b) Bacteria are living cells, while viruses are not considered living organisms. c) Bacteria are always harmful, while viruses are always beneficial. d) Bacteria are much smaller than viruses.

17. What is the function of the ribosome in a bacterial cell?

a) DNA replication b) Energy production c) Protein synthesis d) Cell wall formation

18. Which of the following describes the study of human societies and their interactions?

a) Psychology b) Anthropology c) Sociology d) Criminology

19. What is the term for a group of people who share common values, norms, and behaviors?

a) Cohort b) Clique c) Subculture d) Tribe

20. Which of the following best describes the psychological term 'cognitive dissonance'?

a) The feeling of euphoria experienced after completing a difficult task. b) A mental state of discomfort caused by holding two or more contradictory beliefs or values. c) The ability to empathize with another person's feelings. d) A temporary loss of memory due to psychological trauma.

Part B: Nursing Subjects

21. What is the primary principle of the nursing diagnosis 'Ineffective Airway Clearance'?

a) The patient has difficulty with oxygenation. b) The patient is at risk for aspiration. c) The patient is unable to clear secretions or obstructions from the respiratory tract. d) The patient has a respiratory infection.

22. Which phase of the nursing process involves identifying the patient's health problems and creating a care plan?

a) Assessment b) Implementation c) Planning d) Evaluation

23. What is the first step a nurse should take when a patient is experiencing a sudden and severe allergic reaction?

a) Administer an antihistamine. b) Check the patient's blood pressure. c) Administer epinephrine. d) Call the physician.

24. Which of the following is the most important intervention for a patient with hypovolemic shock?

a) Administering antibiotics b) Providing intravenous (IV) fluids c) Giving pain medication d) Placing the patient in a prone position

25. What is the correct way to assess for an obstructed airway in an unconscious adult?

a) Shake the patient and ask, 'Are you okay?' b) Look for chest rise and fall, listen for breath sounds, and feel for air movement. c) Perform five abdominal thrusts. d) Use a stethoscope to listen for heart sounds.

26. What is the purpose of a pulse oximeter?

a) To measure the patient's heart rate. b) To measure the patient's blood pressure. c) To measure the oxygen saturation of the blood. d) To measure the patient's body temperature.

27. A patient with a nasogastric tube is at high risk for which nursing diagnosis?

a) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity b) Risk for Aspiration c) Impaired Physical Mobility d) Ineffective Breathing Pattern

28. What is the primary goal of nursing care for a patient with a fractured femur?

a) To prevent infection b) To maintain proper alignment and immobilization of the fractured bone c) To provide a high-protein diet d) To administer pain medication only

29. Which of the following is a common symptom of myocardial infarction (heart attack)?

a) Severe headache b) Chest pain that radiates to the left arm, jaw, or back c) Unexplained weight gain d) Nasal congestion

30. What is the most critical intervention for a patient with an open pneumothorax?

a) Applying a sterile dressing to the wound. b) Administering oral pain medication. c) Applying a three-sided occlusive dressing to the wound. d) Performing a chest compression.

31. What is the primary reason for a nurse to use therapeutic communication with a patient?

a) To give the patient medical advice. b) To complete the patient's chart quickly. c) To build a trusting relationship and facilitate the patient's self-expression. d) To entertain the patient with stories.

32. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a pediatric patient experiencing an asthma attack?

a) Placing the child in a supine position. b) Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed and positioning the child in a high-Fowler's position. c) Encouraging the child to lie down and rest. d) Giving the child a cold drink to soothe their throat.

33. Which of the following is an example of an involuntary admission to a psychiatric facility?

a) A patient voluntarily seeks treatment for depression. b) A patient is admitted after a judge orders a psychiatric evaluation. c) A patient requests a referral from their primary care physician to a psychiatrist. d) A patient with schizophrenia agrees to be admitted for medication management.

34. What is the primary goal of nursing care for a patient with schizophrenia?

a) To cure the patient of the disease. b) To promote reality orientation and social skills. c) To encourage the patient to stop taking their medication. d) To have the patient remain isolated from others.

35. Which of the following is a key component of a community health nursing assessment?

a) Assessing the patient's individual vital signs only. b) Diagnosing a specific individual's disease. c) Identifying the health needs and resources of a specific population or community. d) Prescribing medication to community members.

36. What is the primary role of an Obstetrical Nursing nurse during labor?

a) To administer anesthesia to the patient. b) To monitor the mother's and fetus's vital signs and well-being. c) To perform a cesarean section. d) To induce labor without a doctor's order.

37. What is the purpose of a newborn Apgar score?

a) To determine the baby's gender. b) To assess the baby's physical and neurological condition at birth. c) To predict the baby's future health problems. d) To measure the baby's weight and height.

38. Which of the following is a core principle of pediatric nursing?

a) Treating the child as a small adult. b) Focusing exclusively on the child's physical symptoms. c) Ignoring the parents' concerns and questions. d) Recognizing that children are in a continuous state of growth and development.

39. What is the primary objective of community health nursing in a school setting?

a) Administering vaccinations to adults only. b) Managing a student's long-term chronic illness. c) Providing health education and promoting healthy habits among students. d) Treating a student's broken bone.

40. What is the primary purpose of a 'well-child' visit in pediatrics?

a) To diagnose and treat acute illnesses. b) To administer vaccinations only. c) To assess growth and development and provide preventive care. d) To perform a psychological evaluation of the child.

41. Which type of immunization provides long-term immunity?

a) Passive immunity b) Active immunity c) Herd immunity d) Natural immunity

42. What is the primary purpose of a postpartum visit for a new mother?

a) To monitor the baby's weight and height. b) To assess the mother's physical and emotional recovery from childbirth. c) To perform a complete physical exam. d) To give the mother advice on childcare.

43. What is the purpose of the nursing intervention 'Sitz bath'?

a) To promote relaxation and reduce anxiety. b) To clean and soothe the perineal area after childbirth or surgery. c) To lower a patient's body temperature. d) To help a patient with mobility issues.

44. What is the most important consideration when providing nursing care to a patient with a communicable disease?

a) Ensuring the patient is comfortable. b) Implementing standard and transmission-based precautions. c) Providing the patient with a high-protein diet. d) Encouraging the patient to walk in the hallway.

45. In the context of pharmacology, what does 'pharmacokinetics' refer to?

a) The study of the effects of drugs on the body. b) The study of how the body affects a drug. c) The study of how drugs are manufactured. d) The study of drug interactions with food.

46. What is the function of the placenta during pregnancy?

a) To produce amniotic fluid. b) To absorb nutrients from the mother's digestive system. c) To provide oxygen and nutrients to the fetus and remove waste products. d) To prevent the fetus from moving inside the uterus.

47. Which of the following is an example of a common nosocomial infection?

a) Influenza b) Tuberculosis c) Urinary tract infection (UTI) from a urinary catheter. d) Measles

48. What is the term for a drug that binds to and activates a receptor to produce a biological response?

a) Antagonist b) Agonist c) Inhibitor d) Catalyst

49. Which of the following is the most common cause of childhood poisoning?

a) Pesticides b) Household cleaning products c) Over-the-counter and prescription medications d) Vitamins and supplements

50. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with severe dehydration?

a) Providing oral rehydration solutions only. b) Administering IV fluids. c) Monitoring intake and output once per day. d) Encouraging a high-sodium diet.

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