JEPBN Mock Test 4

Part A: General Subjects

1. Which part of the nervous system is responsible for the 'rest and digest' response?

a) Sympathetic nervous system b) Central nervous system c) Parasympathetic nervous system d) Somatic nervous system

2. What is the primary function of the lymphatic system?

a) Circulating blood to all parts of the body b) Fighting infections and maintaining fluid balance c) Digestion and absorption of nutrients d) Producing hormones

3. Which of the following is a retrovirus that attacks the body's immune system?

a) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) b) Influenza virus c) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) d) Hepatitis B virus

4. What is the most common route of drug administration for immediate and complete absorption?

a) Oral b) Subcutaneous c) Intramuscular d) Intravenous (IV)

5. The enzyme 'amylase' is responsible for breaking down which nutrient?

a) Proteins b) Fats c) Carbohydrates d) Nucleic acids

6. Which of the following vitamins is a component of the B-complex group and is crucial for red blood cell formation?

a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin E

7. What is the term for a sudden, severe, and rapid onset of a disease or condition?

a) Chronic b) Acute c) Remission d) Recurrence

8. The psychological concept of 'Maslow's hierarchy of needs' suggests that which of the following needs must be met first?

a) Safety needs b) Self-actualization c) Physiological needs d) Esteem needs

9. Which of the following is an example of 'active immunity'?

a) Receiving antibodies from a mother's breast milk b) Getting a vaccination c) Receiving a blood transfusion d) A shot of tetanus antitoxin

10. In sociology, what does the term 'social stratification' refer to?

a) The process of moving from one social class to another b) The division of a society into a hierarchy of layers or classes c) The study of social norms d) The process of social change

11. What is the primary cause of an 'inflammatory' response in the body?

a) A hormonal imbalance b) A reaction to injury or infection c) Lack of nutrition d) Genetic predisposition

12. Which of the following is a symptom of a 'Cushing's syndrome'?

a) Unexplained weight loss b) High blood pressure and weight gain in the upper body c) Low blood pressure d) Decreased appetite

13. What is the term for the study of the effects of drugs on the body, including their mechanism of action?

a) Pharmacokinetics b) Pharmacodynamics c) Toxicology d) Therapeutics

14. Which part of the eye is responsible for focusing light onto the retina?

a) Iris b) Cornea c) Lens d) Pupil

15. What is the primary cause of 'anemia'?

a) A high red blood cell count b) Low iron levels in the blood c) High blood pressure d) High blood sugar

16. Which of the following is a 'modifiable' risk factor for heart disease?

a) Family history b) Age c) Smoking d) Gender

17. The sociological concept of 'social roles' refers to:

a) A person's position in a social group b) The behavior expected of an individual who occupies a given social position c) The process of social change d) The study of social behavior

18. What is the primary role of the pancreas in regulating blood sugar?

a) Producing insulin and glucagon b) Filtering waste from the blood c) Storing glycogen d) Absorbing glucose from the blood

19. Which of the following is the largest endocrine gland in the human body?

a) Pituitary gland b) Adrenal gland c) Thyroid gland d) Pancreas

20. What is a 'cultural shock'?

a) The experience of moving to a new country b) A feeling of confusion, anxiety, or disorientation when experiencing a new culture c) A form of entertainment d) A type of social norm

Part B: Nursing Subjects

21. What is the primary goal of the nursing diagnosis 'Risk for Infection'?

a) To prevent the patient from getting a fever. b) To identify and prevent potential sources of infection. c) To administer antibiotics to the patient. d) To encourage the patient to be in a crowded room.

22. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a 'wound dehiscence'?

a) Encouraging the patient to cough and laugh b) Applying a sterile, saline-soaked dressing to the wound c) Using a non-sterile dressing d) Giving the patient a high-fat diet

23. What is the primary purpose of a 'fluid balance chart'?

a) To monitor a patient's diet b) To measure the patient's daily fluid intake and output c) To document the patient's medication d) To assess the patient's mobility

24. Which of the following is a key symptom of a 'septic shock'?

a) Low blood pressure and an increased heart rate b) High blood pressure and a decreased heart rate c) A slow and steady heartbeat d) A sudden increase in body temperature

25. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing severe pain after surgery?

a) Telling the patient to ignore the pain b) Providing scheduled pain medication as prescribed c) Giving the patient a glass of water d) Encouraging the patient to be in a noisy environment

26. Which of the following is a key sign of a newborn experiencing 'jaundice'?

a) Bluish skin color b) Yellowish skin and eyes c) Pale skin d) A rash

27. What is the primary goal of a 'well-child visit' in pediatrics?

a) To treat acute illnesses b) To administer vaccinations only c) To assess growth and development and provide preventive care d) To perform a psychological evaluation

28. In psychiatric nursing, what is the term for a patient's irrational and intense fear of a specific object or situation?

a) Delusion b) Hallucination c) Phobia d) Mania

29. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient who is experiencing a panic attack?

a) To leave the patient alone b) To provide a calm and quiet environment and use therapeutic communication c) To tell the patient to calm down d) To administer a high-dose sedative

30. Which of the following is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication?

a) Increased appetite and weight gain b) Decreased appetite c) Sudden weight loss d) A rash on the skin

31. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient who is a 'flight risk'?

a) Placing the patient in a quiet room b) Placing the patient in a room with a window c) Providing a safe environment and monitoring the patient closely d) Encouraging the patient to take a walk

32. In obstetric nursing, what is the purpose of a 'fetal monitoring' device?

a) To measure the mother's blood pressure b) To measure the baby's weight c) To assess the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions d) To determine the baby's gender

33. What is the primary role of a nurse during the 'first stage of labor'?

a) To push the baby out b) To monitor the mother's and fetus's vital signs and provide comfort measures c) To administer a C-section d) To provide a new diet plan

34. Which of the following is a key sign of 'postpartum hemorrhage'?

a) A slight increase in blood pressure b) Excessive vaginal bleeding and a sudden drop in blood pressure c) A gradual onset of a headache d) A sudden increase in body temperature

35. What is the main purpose of 'breastfeeding' for a newborn?

a) To provide nutrients and passive immunity to the baby b) To help the baby sleep c) To prevent the baby from getting a cold d) To help the baby with mobility

36. In community health nursing, what is the purpose of 'health education'?

a) To treat a disease b) To provide information and skills to help individuals make informed decisions about their health c) To provide a list of medications to the community d) To manage a chronic disease

37. What is the primary role of a community health nurse during a 'home health visit'?

a) To provide an in-depth psychological evaluation b) To provide medical care and monitor the patient's condition in their home setting c) To give the patient a new diet plan d) To perform surgery on the patient

38. Which of the following is a key sign of a patient with 'dehydration'?

a) Increased urination and moist skin b) Dry mucous membranes and decreased urine output c) Swelling in the feet d) Unexplained weight gain

39. What is the main purpose of 'pain assessment' in nursing?

a) To determine if the patient is lying about their pain b) To assess the patient's pain level and guide pain management interventions c) To give the patient a sedative d) To ignore the patient's pain

40. What is the 'SBAR' communication tool used for in nursing?

a) To document patient vital signs. b) To effectively communicate patient information to other healthcare professionals. c) To administer medication. d) To perform a psychological evaluation.

41. What is the purpose of a 'pulse oximeter'?

a) To measure the patient's heart rate. b) To measure the patient's blood pressure. c) To measure the oxygen saturation of the blood. d) To measure the patient's body temperature.

42. What is the primary purpose of a 'surgical consent' form?

a) To give the nurse permission to perform surgery b) To ensure the patient has given informed consent for a medical procedure c) To document the patient's diet d) To provide a list of medications

43. Which of the following is a common symptom of a 'urinary tract infection (UTI)'?

a) Unexplained weight loss b) Pain or burning during urination c) A sudden drop in body temperature d) A severe headache

44. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient who is post-surgery?

a) Encouraging the patient to lie down for an extended period. b) Monitoring for signs of infection, bleeding, and pain. c) Giving the patient a high-fat diet. d) Notifying the family of the surgery.

45. What is the 'Glasgow Coma Scale' used to assess?

a) The patient's pain level. b) The patient's level of consciousness. c) The patient's nutritional status. d) The patient's risk for falls.

46. What is the primary role of a pediatric nurse in a patient with a cough and cold?

a) To give the child a cold compress. b) To monitor the child's respiratory status and provide comfort measures. c) To tell the parents not to worry. d) To administer an antibiotic.

47. What is the main purpose of 'discharge planning' in nursing?

a) To decide when a patient can leave the hospital. b) To provide a seamless transition of care for the patient from the hospital to their home or another facility. c) To tell the patient's family about their diagnosis. d) To provide a list of medications to the patient.

48. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with a low blood pressure (hypotension)?

a) Placing the patient in a semi-Fowler's position. b) Elevating the patient's feet to promote blood flow to the head and heart. c) Giving the patient a cold bath. d) Administering a high-dose sedative.

49. What is the 'Universal Precautions' principle in nursing?

a) To use sterile gloves for all procedures. b) To treat all patients' blood, body fluids, and secretions as potentially infectious. c) To wear a mask and gloves for every patient interaction. d) To wash hands only after leaving a patient's room.

50. In obstetric nursing, what is the 'Braxton Hicks contractions' referred to as?

a) True labor contractions. b) False labor contractions. c) Contractions that occur after the baby is born. d) Contractions that occur only during the first trimester.

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